100+ Human Health And Disease NEET previous Questions

Human Health And Disease NEET Previous Year Questions

The students who are targeting for NEET exam should prepare for all the important chapters of NEET syllabus to secure good marks in NEET 2022. Candidates planning to appear in the medical exam must have knowledge about the weightage of chapters. Biology section carries the maximum weightage.
 
Human Health And Disease is the eighth chapter categorized under the unit 'Biology In Human Welfare'. This is good topic, good quality of questions can be asked from this topic. According to the NEET chapter wise weightage Human Health And Disease contributes to around 4% of the total number of questions asked in the last years. On average we can expect 3-4 from this particular chapter.
Human Health And Disease NEET Questions

Here you will find all previous year Human Health And Disease NEET Questions. Solving previous years Human Health And Disease NEET Questions will be beneficial for you. Firstly you get an idea of what type of questions are asked in previous year. 

Every year around many of questions of biology  are repeated as it is without even changing single word. These Human Health And Disease NEET questions will definitely guide you in what direction you need extra push.


Human Health And Disease NEET Questions And Answers

AIPMT 2006
 
1. Cri–du–chat syndrome in humans is caused by the
 
(1) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y–bearing sperm
 
(2) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
 
(3) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
 
(4) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
 
Solution : 2
 
2. Antibodies in our body are complex –
 
(1) Lipoproteins
(2) Steroids
(3) Prostaglandins
(4) Glycoproteins
 
Solution : 4
 
3. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
 
(1) B–lymphocytes
(2) Leucocytes
(3) Thrombocytes
(4) Helper T–lymphocytes
 
Solution : 4
 
4. Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated from the African population because –
 
(1) It is controlled by recessive genes
(2) It is not a fatal disease
(3) It provides immunity against malaria
(4) It is controlled by dominant genes
 
Solution : 3
 
5. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's chorea are
 
(1) Bacteria–related diseases
(2) Congenital disorders
(3) Pollutant–induced disorders
(4) Virus–related diseases
 
Solution : 2
 
AIIMS 2006
 
6. The figure below shows an angiogram of the

coronary blood vessel. Which one of the following statements correctly describes, what is being done

Human Health And Disease NEET Questions
 
(1) It is coronary artery which has a cancerous
growth that is being removed
 
(2) It is coronary artery which is blocked by a plaque and the same is being cracked
 
(3) It is coronary vein in which the defective valves are being opened
 
(4) It is coronary vein blocked by a parasite (blood fluke) that is being removed
 
Solution : 2
 
AIPMT 2007
 
7. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to :-
 
(1) Low temperature
(2) Hot and humid environment
(3) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(4) Inhalation of seasonal pollen
 
Solution : 4
 
8. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys :
 
(1) Most virus - infected cells
(2) Certain fungi
(3) Certain types of bacteria
(4) All viruses
 
Solution : 3
 
AIPMT 2008
 
9. Which one of the follwing conditions in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/linkage ?
 
(1) Erythroblastosis foetalis –X linked
(2) Down syndrome – 44 autosomes + XO
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome –44 autosomes +XXY
(4) Colour blindness – Y linked
 
Solution : 3
 
10. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:-
 
(1) Eosinophils and lymphocytes
(2) Neutrophils and monocytes
(3) Neutrophils and eosinophils
(4) Lymphocytes and macrophages
 
Solution : 2
 
11. Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in Column II
 
 Column I                           Column II
 
(a) Amoebiasis             (i) Treponema pallidum
(b) Diphtheria               (ii) Use only sterilized
                                             food and water
(c) Cholera                   (iii) DPT Vaccine
(d) Syphilis                   (iv) Use oral rehydration
                                             therapy
 
(1) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i)
(3) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(4) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii)
 
Solution : 2
 
12. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?
 
(1) Physiological barriers
(2) Physical barriers
(3) Cytokine barriers
(4) Cellular barriers
 
Solution : 1
 
13. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified
 
(1) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed
emotions
(2) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(3) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
(4) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
 
Solution : 2
 
AIPMT 2009
 
14. In a standard ECG, which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart ?
 
(1) P – depolarisation of the atria
(2) R – repolarisation of ventricles
(3) S – start of systole
(4) T – end of diastole
 
Solution : 1
 
15. Which one of the following statements is correct?
 
(1) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
(2) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain
(3) Benign tumours show the property of
metastasis
(4) Heroin accelerates body functions
 
Solution : 1
 
16. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
 
(1) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
(2) Ringworm, AIDS
(3) Common Cold, AIDS
(4) Dysentery, Common Cold
 
Solution : 3
 
17. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering :-
 
(1) Weakened germs
(2) Dead germs
(3) Preformed antibodies
(4) Wide spectrum antibiotics
 
Solution : 3
 
18. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from :-
 
(1) headache
(2) Allergy
(3) Nausea
(4) Cough
 
Solution : 2
 
19. The genetic defect - adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by
 
(1) Enzyme replacement therapy
(2) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered
lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(3) Administering adenosine deaminase activators
(4) Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
 
Solution : 4
 
20. The letter "T" in T-lymphocyte refers to :
 
(1) Thymus
(2) Thyroid
(3) Thalamus
(4) Tonsil
 
Solution : 1
 
AIPMT 2010-Pre
 
21. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of :
 
(1) Typhoid
(2) Malaria
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Tuberculosis
 
Solution : 1
 
22. Ringworm in humans is caused by :
 
(I) Viruses
(2) Bacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Nematodes
 
Solution : 3
 
23. Consider the following four statements
(a-d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these.
 
(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the
recipient may need to take immuno-suppresants for a longtime
 
(b) The cell-mediated immune response is
responsible for the graft rejection
 
(c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft
 
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney
transplant depends on specific interferons
 
The two correct statements are :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)
 
Solution : 1
 
24. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS ?
 
(1) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper
T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers
 
(2) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
 
(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection
 
(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per
cent with proper care and nutrition
 
Solution : 1
 
25. Select the correct statement from the ones given below :
 
(1) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
(2) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
(3) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
(4) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
 
Solution : 3
 
AIPMT 2010-Main
 
26. Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers ?
 
(1) Radiography (X–ray)
(2) Computed tomography (CT)
(3) Histopathological studies
(4) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
 
Solution : 4
 
AIIMS 2010
 
27. Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis and Pneumoconiasis:
 
(1) HIV is virus and both are disease
(2) HIV and hepatitis are virus and
pneumoconiasis is disease.
(3) HIV and hepatitis are viral disease and
pneumoconiasis is bacterial disease
(4) All are viral disease
 
Solution : 1
 
28. Find out the correct identification for PQRST in the given graph :-

Human Health And Disease NEET Questions
 
(1) Peak of R-represent Tricuspid and bicuspid
opening
(2) T-wave ventricular depolarization
(3) P-wave Depolarisation of atria
(4) QRS-wave represents ventricular repolarisation
 
Solution : 3
 
AIPMT 2011-Pre
 
29. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
 
(1) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
(2) When viral DNA is produced by reverse
transcriptase
(3) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper
T-lymphocytes and damages large number of
these
(4) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.
 
Solution : 3
 
30. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection ?
 
(1) ELISA
(2) MRI
(3) Ultra sound
(4) WIDAL
 
Solution : 1
 
AIPMT 2011-Main
 
31. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is:
 
(1) not an infectious disease
(2) caused by a virus
(3) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(4) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
 
Solution : 2
 

32. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

Human Health And Disease NEET Questions
 
(1) Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(2) Complex QRS-One complete pulse
(3) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(4) Peak P and Peak R together - systolic and
diastolic blood pressures.
 
Solution : 2
 

33. Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection.

Human Health And Disease NEET Questions

Solution : 3
 
34. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation :
 
(1) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation.
 
(2) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen.
 
(3) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
 
(4) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine
 
Solution : 2
 
AIIMS 2011
 
35. Which one of the following is true statements?
 
(1) Blood group 'O' person does not have
anti-A, anti-B antibodies in blood plasma.
(2) Eosinophils resist the bacterial infection.
(3) RBC contain carbonic anhydrase.
(4) T-wave of normal ECG represents
depolarization of ventricle
 
Solution : 3
 
AIPMT 2012-Pre
 
36. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system :-
 
(1) Myasthenia gravis-Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(2) Gout-inflammation of joints due to extra
deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening of muscles
(4) Osteoporosis-decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
 
Solution : 4
 
37. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that :
 
(1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the
common cold is caused by the bacterium
Haemophilus influenzae
 
(2) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
 
(3) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease.
 
(4) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live
attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the
common cold has no effective vaccine.
 
Solution : 2
 
38. Widal Test is carried out to test :
 
(1) HIV/AIDS
(2) Typhoid fever
(3) Malaria
(4) Diabetes mellitus
 
Solution : 2
 
39. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of:
 
(1) Tobacco (Chewing)
(2) Cocaine
(3) Opium
(4) Alcohol
 
Solution : 4
 
40. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in :
 
(1) Human RBCs
(2) Human liver
(3) Gut of female Anopheles
(4) Salivary glands of Anopheles
 
Solution : 3
 

41. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?

Human Health And Disease NEET Questions

Solution : 3
 
 
AIPMT 2012-Main
 
42. The first clinical gene therapy was given for
treating :
 
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis
(2) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
(3) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Chicken pox
 
Solution : 2
 

43. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.

Human Health And Disease NEET Questions

Solution : 2
 
44. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?
 
(1) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
 
(2) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of
B-lymphocytes.
 
(3) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
 
(4) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes
 
Solution : 3
 
AIIMS 2012
 
45. Which of the following is correctly matched with their chromosomal condition ?
 
(1) Sickle Cell Anaemia – Heterozygous
                                           condition of HbS gene
(2) Down's Syndrome – Trisomy of chromosome 22
(3) Turner's Syndrome – XO condition.
(4) Klinefelter's Syndrome – Failure of
                                               cytokinesis after telophase.
Solution : 3
 
46. Which of the following is correct ?
 
(1) Morphine used as sedative and pain-killer
(2) Cancer – Increases contact inhibition of cells
(3) Nicotine – Stimulates Islets of Langerhans to release hormone which act on liver to release enzyme to breakdown glucose.
(4) Snake bites – Antigens are injected
 
Solution : 1
 
NEET-UG 2013
 
47. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by :
 
(1) Erythrocytes
(2) T-lymphocytes
(3) B-lymphocytes
(4) Thrombocytes
 
Solution : 2
 
48. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
 
(1) Jaundice
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Sex of the foetus
(4) Down's syndrome
 
Solution : 1
 
49. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :
 
(1) mosquito bite
(2) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
(3) eating imperfectly cooked pork.
(4) Tse-tse fly
 
Solution : 2
 
AIIMS 2013
 
50. Sexual phases (gametocyte) of Plasmodium occurs in:
 
(1) Liver cells of human
(2) RBC of human
(3) Intestine of mosquito
(4) Salivary glands of mosquito
 
Solution : 2
 
AIPMT 2014
 

51. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P- wave represents the :

Human Health And Disease NEET Questions
 
(1) End of systole
(2) Contraction of both the atria
(3) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(4) Beginning of the systole
 
Solution : 2
 
52. A human female with Tunner's syndrome :
 
(1) has 45 chromosomes with XO.
(2) has one additional X chromosome.
(3) exhibits male characters.
(4) is able to produce children with normal husband.
 
Solution : 1
 
53. Which is the particular type of drug that is
obtained from the plant whose one
flowering branch is shown below:-

Human Health And Disease NEET Questions

(1) Hallucinogen
(2) Depressant
(3) Stimulant
(4) Pain - killer
 
Solution : 1
 
54. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS :-
 
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
infected person.
(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells.
(3) When HIV damages large number of helper
T-Lymphocytes.
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse
transcriptase.
 
Solution : 3
 
AIIMS 2014
 
55. Which of the following occurs due to monosomy of chromosomes ?
 
(1) Turner syndrome
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Phenyl ketonuria
(4) Sickle cell anaemia
 
Solution : 1
 
56. Which of the following is correct?
 
(1) B -cells provide CMI
(2) Interferons prevent the neighbouring cells from further viral infection
(3) As the age increases, thymosin increases
(4) T-cells produces antibodies
 
Solution : 2
 
AIPMT 2015
 
57. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease ?
 
(1) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
(2) Trichomoniasis
(3) Encephalitis
(4) Syphilis
 
Solution : 3
 
58. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
 
(1) Leucocytes
(2) Helper T- Lymphocytes
(3) Thrombocytes
(4) B- Lymphocytes
 
Solution : 2
 
59. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
 
(1) Human immunodeficiency virus
(2) Chikungunya virus
(3) Ebola virus
(4) Hepatitis B virus
 
Solution : 2
 
60. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine:
 
(a) tuberculosis              (i) harmless virus
(b) whooping cough      (ii) inactivated toxin
(c) diphtheria                 (iii) killed bacteria
(d) polio                         (iv) harmless bacteria
 
       (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
 
Solution : 2
 
61. An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex
chromosomes was born due to :
 
(1) formation of abnormal ova in the mother
(2) fusion of two ova and one sperm
(3) fusion of two sperms and one ovum
(4) formation of abnormal sperms in the father
 
Solution : 1
 
Re-AIPMT 2015
 
62. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to
 
(1) Innate immune response
(2) Humoral immune response
(3) Cell-mediated immune response
(4) Passive immune response
 
Solution : 3
 
63. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
 
(1) Serum globulins
(2) Fibrinogin in plasma
(3) Serum albumins
(4) Haemocytes
 
Solution : 1
 
64. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls.
 
(1) Asthma
(2) Pleurisy
(3) Emphysema
(4) Pneumonia
 
Solution : 3
 
65. Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
 
(1) IgG
(2) IgD
(3) IgM
(4) IgA
 
Solution : 4
 
NEET-I 2016
 
66. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking :-
 
(1) Emphysema
(2) Asthma
(3) Respiratory acidosis
(4) Respiratory alkalosis
 
Solution : 1
 
67. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect ?
 
(1) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
(2) It is used for prenatal sex determination
(3) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
(4) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
 
Solution : 4
 
68. Asthma may be attributed to :
 
(1) bacterial infection of the lungs
(2) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
(3) inflammation of the trachea
(4) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
 
Solution : 2
 
69. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to :-
 
(1) Allergic response
(2) Graft rejection
(3) Auto-immune disease
(4) Active immunity
 
Solution : 3
 
70. Pick out the correct statements :
 
(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
 
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy
 
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
 
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder
 
(1) (a) and (d) are correct
(2) (b) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
 
Solution : 4
 
71. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the
body contain :-
 
(1) Activated pathogens
(2) Harvested antibodies
(3) Gamma globulin
(4)Attenuated pathogens
 
Solution : 4
 
72. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as :-
 
(1) Spasm
(2) Fatigue
(3) Tetanus
(4) Tonus
 
Solution : 3
 
73. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations ?
 
(1) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.
(2) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
(3) Mutations inactive the cell control.
(4) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
 
Solution : 4
 
NEET-II 2016
 
74. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency ?
 
(1) Immunotherapy
(2) Radiation therapy
(3) Gene therapy
(4) Chemotherapy
 
Solution : 3
 
75. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV:
 
(1) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
(2) HIV does not escape but attacks the aquired immune response.
(3) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule
of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of
reverse transcriptase.
(4) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two
identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
 
Solution : 4
 
76. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?
 
(1) Tetanus and mumps
(2) Herpes and influenza
(3) Cholera and tetanus
(4) Typhoid and smallpox
 
Solution : 3
 
AIIMS 2016
 
77. Match the item of column-I with column-II and choose the correct option :-
 
 
 
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
 
Solution : 2
 
78. Match the column
 
Column-A                               Column-B
(Drugs)                                      (source)
 
a Smack                       i Erythroxylum coca
b Coke                         ii Cannabis sativa
c Marijuana                 iii Nicotiana tobacum
d Nicotene                   iv Papaver somniferum
 
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
 
Solution : 3
 
NEET(UG) 2017
 
79. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement :
 
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
(3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis
 
Solution : 2
 
80. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is :
 
(1) Klinefelter's Syndrome
(2) Turner's Syndrome
(3) Sickel Cell Anemia
(4) Down's Syndrome
 
Solution : 4
 
81. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II) and select the correct option :
 
Column-I                   Column-II
(a) Gonorrhea             (i) HIV
(b) Syphilis                 (ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts       (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS                      (iv) Human papilloma-Virus
 
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) iii   iv    i    ii
(2) iv   ii    iii    i
(3) iv   iii    ii    i
(4) ii    iii   iv    i
 
Solution : 4
 
82. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections ?
 
(1) Cell - mediated immune response
(2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response
(4) Autoimmune response
 
Solution : 1
 
AIIMS 2017
 
83. A plant or human cell infected by virus forms a chemical to prevent itself from further viral infection.
Identify the chemical :-
 
(1) Virions
(2) Interferons
(3) Anti-infection
(4) Antivirion
 
Solution : 2
 
84. Which is incorrect statement?
 
(1) Genital herpes if detected in early stage then is completely curable.
(2) Gonorrhoea if detected in early stage than is completely curable.
(3) HIV can be transmitted from mother to foetus during pregnancy
(4) Hepetitis-B can be transmitted even after the use of condom.
 
Solution : 1
 

85.

Human Health And Disease NEET Questions
 
Identify above diagram and pick the correct
option?
(1) It is heroin and CNS depressant
(2) It is obtained from flower of Papaver
sominiferum
(3) It is cannabinoid
(4) It is barbiturates
 
Solution : 2
 
NEET(UG) 2018
 
86. Which of the following is not at autoimmune disease?
 
(1) Psoriasis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Alzheimer's disease
(4) Vitiligo
 
Solution : 3
 
87. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
 
(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Ringworm disease
(4) Amoebiasis
 
Solution : 1
 
88. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :-
 
Column                           I Column II
a. Fibrinogen             i. Osmotic balance
b. Globulin                ii. Blood clotting
c. Albumin                iii. Defence mechanism
      a b c
(1) iii ii i
(2) i ii iii
(3) i iii ii
(4) ii iii i
 
Solution : 4
 
AIIMS 2018
 
89. Uterine fibroid (Leiomyoma) is :-
 
(1) hypophyseal tumor
(2) benign tumor of uterus
(3) prostatic carcinoma
(4) epithelial tumor of cervix
 
Solution : 2
 
90. Turner's syndrome is caused due to :-
 
(1) Loss of one X-chromosome (44 + XO)
(2) Loss of one autosome (43 + XX)
(3) Presence of one extra X-chromosome
(44 + XXY)
(4) Presence of one extra Y-chromosome
(44 + XYY)
 
Solution : 1
 
91. Which one is correct ?
 
(1) Turner's syndrome - XO monosomy in females
(2) Down's syndrome - XO monosomy
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome - XXY in females
(4) Sickle cell anaemia - X-linked dominant disease
 
Solution : 1
 
92. Correct statement is :-
 
(1) all tumors are not cancerous
(2) cancerous cells always show contact inhibition
(3) all cancers are caused by viruses
(4) all tumor cells show metastasis
 
Solution : 1
 
93. Which is correct about following chemical?
 
(1) Morphine-act as a depressant
(2) Cannabinoid - effect on cardiovascular system
(3) Cocain - euphoria and increases energy
(4) Opioid - obtained from poppy plant
 
Solution : 2
 
94. 'Down syndrome' is due to :-
 
(1) Presence of an additional copy of chromosome 21
(2) Presence of an additional copy of
X-chromosome
(3) Absence of one X-chromosome
(4) Presence of an additional copy of 7th
chromosome
 
Solution : 1
 
95. Vinblastin is obtained from :-
 
(1) Vinca rosea
(2) Papaver somniferum
(3) Erythroxylum coca
(4) Cannabis sativa
 
Solution : 1
 
96. Correct statement for thalassemia is :-
 
(1) a-chain is less synthesised
(2) b-chain is less synthesised
(3) Correctly sequenced b-chain is less synthesised
(4) Both a and b-chains are less synthesised
 
Solution : 4
 
97. Type-I diabetes is :-
 
(1) insulin dependent
(2) insulin nondependent
(3) aldosterone dependent
(4) glucocorticoids dependent
 
Solution : 1
 
98. Erythropoiesis only occurs in :-
 
(1) Erythroblast
(2) Myeloid tissue
(3) Proerythroblast
(4) Reticulocytes
 
Solution : 2
 
99. Match the columns :-
 
Column-I                          Column-II
a LSD                         i CNS/Stimulant
b Nicotine                  ii Raise blood pressure
c Morphine                iii Sedative and Analgesic
d Cocaine                  iv Hallucinogen
 
      a b c d
(1) iv ii iii i
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) iv i iii ii
 
Solution : 1
 
 In this article we have provided you important previous year Human Health And Disease NEET Questions. Solve the above all previous year Human Health And Disease s NEET Questions. To perform better in exam solve more Human Health And Disease NEET Questions.

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