70+ Molecular basis of inheritance NEET Questions

Molecular basis of inheritance NEET Questions - PYQ

The students who are targeting for NEET exam should prepare for all the important chapters of NEET syllabus to secure good marks in NEET 2022. Candidates planning to appear in the medical exam must have knowledge about the weightage of chapters. Biology section carries the maximum weightage.

 Molecular basis of inheritance is the fifth chapter categorized under the unit 'Genetics And Evolution'. This is a good topic, good quality of questions can be asked from this topic. According to the NEET chapter wise weightage Molecular basis of inheritance contributes to around 4% of the total number of questions asked in the last years. On average we can expect 4-5 from this particular chapter.

Molecular basis of inheritance NEET Questions

 Here you will find all previous year Molecular basis of inheritance NEET Questions. Solving previous years  for Molecular basis of inheritance NEET Questions will be beneficial for you. Firstly you get an idea of what type of questions are asked in previous year. Every year around many of questions of biology  are repeated as it is without even changing single word. This previous year Molecular basis of inheritance NEET Questions will definitely guide you in what direction you need extra push.

 Molecular basis of inheritance NEET Questions And Answers

AIPMT 2006

1. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis ?

(1) Erythromycin  

(2) Neomycin

(3) Streptomycin  

(4) Tetracycline

Solution : 2

2. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of

(1) tRNA 

(2) mRNA

(3) cDNA 

(4) rRNA

Solution : 2

3. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by

(1) R. Franklin   

(2) Hershey and Chase

(3) A.Garrod      

(4) Beadle and Tatum

Solution : 4

4. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately

(1) 20 nm   

(2) 0.34 nm

(3) 3.4 nm 

(4) 2 nm

Solution : 3

5. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that

(1) one strand turns anti-clockwise

(2 the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position

(3) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)

(4) one strand turns clockwise

Solution : 3

6. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the

(1) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm

(2) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5

(3) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5

(4) Trisomy of 21stchromosome

Solution : 2

7. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with –

(1) Rye

(2) Pearl millet

(3) Sugarcane

(4) Barley

Solution : 1

AIPMT 2007

8. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is association with :-

(1) Developmental mutations
(2) Differential expression of genes
(3) Lethal mutations
(4) Deletion of genes

Solution : 2

9. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by :

(1) RNA polymerase
(2) Ribosome
(3) Transcription factor
(4) Anticodon

Solution : 3

10. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth :

(1) Result in transcription
(2) Polymerize in the 3'-to-5' direction and forms replication fork
(3) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
(4) Polymerize in the 5'-to-3' direction and explain 3'-to-5' DNA replication

Solution : 4

11. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are :

(1) Parallel
(2) Discontinuous
(3) Antiparallel
(4) Semiconservative

Solution : 3

12. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are :-

(1) n=7 and x=21
(2) n=21 and x=21
(3) n=21 and x=14
(4) n=21 and x=7

Solution : 4

AIPMT 2008

13. Which of the following nitrogen base is not found in DNA-

(1) Thymine 

(2) Cytosine

(3) Guanine 

(4) Uracil

Solution : 4

14. Polysome is formed by :-

(1) A ribosome with several subunits
(2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

Solution : 3

15. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it ?

(1) Guanine, Adenine – Purines
(2) Adenine, Thymine – Purines
(3) Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines
(4) Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines

Solution : 2

16. In the DNA molecule:-

(1) the proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism 

 (2) there are two strands which run anti parallel one in 5' → 3' direction and other in 3'→ 5' 

(C) the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidines nucleotides is not always equal 

 (D) there are two strands which run parallel in the 5'→ 3'

Solution : 2

17. Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino acid ?

(1) AUG,ACG – Start/Methionine
(2) UUA, UCA –Leucine
(3) GUU, GCU –Alanine
(4) UAG, UGA – Stop

Solution : 4

18. Which of the following bond is not related to nucleic acid :

(1) H-bond
(2) Ester bond
(3) Glycosidic bond
(4) Peptide bond

Solution : 4

19. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because :-

(1) haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids

(2) All mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids

(3) Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids

(4) Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than in diploids

Solution : 2

AIPMT 2009

20. What is not true for genetic code :-

(1) It is unambiguous
(2) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion
(3) It is nearly universal
(4) It is degenerate

Solution : 2

21. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:-

(1) Capping
(2) Splicing
(3) Tailing
(4) Transformation

Solution : 2

22. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in :-

(1) Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Escherichia coli
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Solution : 3

23. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a "triplet" :-

(1) Beadle and tatum
(2) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Morgan and Sturtevant

Solution : 2

24. Point mutation involves :-

(1) Deletion
(2) Insertion
(3) Change in single base pair
(4) Duplication

Solution : 3

AIPMT 2010

25. Select the two correct statements out of the four (ad) given below about lac operon :

(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivated
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds witht the operator region
(c) The z-gene codes for permease
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod

The correct statements are :

(1) (b) and (d)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (c)

Solution : 1

26. Satellite DNA is useful tool in :

(1) Forensic science

(2) Genetic engineering

(3) Organ transplantation

(4) Sex detemination

Solution : 1

27. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being :

(1) Universal

(2) Specific

(3) Degenerate

(4) Ambiguous

Solution : 4

28. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology?

(1) Chlamydomonas

(2) HIV

(3) Pea

(4) Mucor

Solution : 2

AIPMT (Pre.) 2012

29. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for :-

(1) DNA sequencing
(2) Genetic fingerprinting
(3) Study of enzymes
(4) Genetic transformation

Solution : 2

AIPMT (Mains) 2012

30. What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting?

(1) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.
(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
(3) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(4) The relative difference in the DNA occurence in blood, skin and saliva

Solution : 2

31. Read the following four statements (A-D):

(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation.
(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes.
(D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

How many of the above statements are right?
(1) Four

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

Solution : 3

32. Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations?

(1) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens
(2) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation
(3) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frameshift mutations.
(4) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations.

Solution : 2

NEET-UG 2013

33. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene ?

(1) Lactose permease and transacetylase
(2) b-galactosidase
(3) Lactose permease
(4) Catalase

Solution : 2

34. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :

(1) Restriction mapping
(2) Centrifugation
(3) Polymerase chain reaction
(4) Electrophoresis

Solution : 4

AIPMT 2014

35. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are :-

(1) T-DNA
(2) BAC and YAC
(3) Expression Vectors
(4) T/A Cloning Vectors

Solution : 2

AIPMT 2015

36. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :-

(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

Solution : 2

37. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is :

(1) Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription
(2) Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription
(3) Feedback inhibition because excess of b-galactosidase can switch off trascription
(4) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose

Solution : 1

38. The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called :-

(1) Duplication

(2) Translocation

(3) Crossing over

(4) Inversion

Solution : 2

Re-AIPMT 2015

39. Which of the following biomolecules does have a phosphodiester bond ?

(1) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
(2) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
(3) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(4) Amino acids in a polypeptide

Solution : 1

40. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?

(1) Chargaff's rule
(2) Complementary base pairing
(3) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends
(4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases

Solution : 1

41. Satellite DNA is important because it :

(1) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children
(4) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population

Solution : 3

42. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest :

(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

Solution : 4

NEET-I 2016

43. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon ?

(1) Glucose

(2) Galactose

(3) Lactose

(4) Lactose and galactose

Solution : 3

44. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :-

(1) Polysome

(2) Polymer

(3) Polypeptide

(4) Okazaki fragment

Solution : 1

45. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present ?

(1) Polymerase chain reaction
(2) Zinc finger analysis
(3) Restriction enzymes
(4) DNA–DNA hybridization

Solution : 2

46. Which one of the following is the starter codon ?

(1) AUG

(2) UGA

(3) UAA

(4) UAG

Solution : 1

NEET-II 2016

47. Taylor conducted the experiment to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on :

(1) Drosophila melanogaster
(2) E. coli
(3) Vinca rosea
(4) Vicia faba

Solution : 4

48. The equivalent of a structural gene is :

(1) Operon

(2) Recon

(3) Muton

(4) Cistron

Solution : 4

49. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria ?

(1) 23 S rRNA

(2) 5.8 S rRNA

(3) 5 S rRNA

(4) 18 S rRNA

Solution : 1

50. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is :-

(1) Ligase

(2) Deoxyribonuclease

(3) Lysozyme

(4) Ribozyme

Solution : 4

51. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except :-

(1) It should be unstable structurally and chemically
(2) It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
(3) It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian characters'
(4) It should be able to generate its replica

Solution : 1

52. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the :-

(1) Alpha strand

(2) Antistrand

(3) Template strand

(4) Coding strand

Solution : 3

53. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called :

(1) Translocation

(2) Crossing-over

(3) Inversion

(4) Duplication

Solution : 1

NEET(UG) 2017

54. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of :

(1) Hershey and Chase
(2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(3) Hargobind Khorana
(4) Griffith

Solution : 1

55. DNA fragments are:

(1) Negatively charged
(2) Neutral
(3) Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(4) Positively charged

Solution : 1

56. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

(1) 11

(2) 33

(3) 333

(4) 1

Solution : 2

57. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate:

(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork.
(2) The leading strand away from replication fork.
(3) The lagging strand away from the replication fork.
(4) The leading strand towards replication fork.

Solution : 3

58. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell ?

(1) t-RNA

(2) m-RNA

(3) mi-RNA

(4) r-RNA

Solution : 4

59. What is the criterion for DN A fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?

(1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
(2) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(3) Negatively charged fragments do not move
(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

Solution : 1

60. DNA replication in bacteria occurs:

(1) Within nucleolus
(2) Prior to fission
(3) Just before transcription
(4) During S phase

Solution : 2

61. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of;

(1) Fungi

(2) Animals

(3) Bacteria

(4) Plants

Solution : 3

62. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates

(1) DNA replication is occurring.
(2) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.
(3) The DNA double helix is exposed.
(4) Transcription is occurring.

Solution : 2

NEET(UG) 2018

63. The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

(1) Fungus

(2) Bacterium

(3) Plant

(4) Virus

Solution : 2

64. Select the correct match :

Solution : 4

65. Select the correct Match :

(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation

Solution : 1

66. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?

(1) AGGUAUCGCAU

(2) UGGTUTCGCAT

(3) ACCUAUGCGAU

(4) UCCAUAGCGUA

Solution : 1

67. All of the following are part of an operon except :-

(1) an operator

(2) structural genes

(3) an enhancer

(4) a promoter

Solution : 3

NEET(UG) 2019

68. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are :-

(1) Adenine and thymine
(2) Adenine and guanine
(3) Guanine and cytosine
(4) Cytosine and thymine

Solution : 2

69. Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA ?

 5'AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3'

(1) Insertion of G at 5th position
(2) Deletion of G from 5th position
(3) Insertion of A and G and 4th and 5th positions respectively
(4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions

Solution : 4

70. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to:-

(1) Genes expressed as RNA
(2) Polypeptide expression
(3) DNA polymorphism
(4) Novel DNA sequences

Solution : 1

71. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products :-

(a) i gene                            (i) b-galactosidase
(b) z gene                          (ii) Permease
(c) a gene                         (iii) Repressor
(d) y gene                        (iv) Transacetylase

Select the correct option.
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Solution : 3

NEET(UG) 2019 (Odisha)

72. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA ?

3'ATGCATGCATGCATG5' TEMPLATE STRAND
5' TACGTACGTACGTAC3' CODING STRAND

(1) 3'AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG5'
(2) 5'UACGUACGUACGUAC 3'
(3) 3' UACGUACGUACGUAC 5'
(4) 5' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3'

Solution : 2

73. Match the following RNA polymerase with their transcribed products :

(a) RNA polymerase I                  (i) tRNA
(b) RNA polymerase II               (ii) rRNA
(c) RNA polymerase III             (iii) hnRNA

Select the correct option from the following :
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii

(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii

(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i

(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i

Solution : 3

74. From the following, identify the correct combination of salient features of Genetic Code :-

(1) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
(2) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
(3) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
(4) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non-ambiguous

Solution : 4

75. Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage ?

(1) Beadle and Tautum

(2) Messelson and Stahl

(3) Hershey and Chase

(4) Jacob and Monod

Solution : 3

76. In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I transcribes:-

(1) mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing
(2) tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs
(3) rRNAs–28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
(4) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA

Solution : 3

77. What initiation and termination factors are involved in transcription in prokaryotes ?

(1) s and r, respectively
(2) a and b, respectively
(3) b and g, respectively
(4) a and s, respectively

Solution : 1

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